By: Jon
You’re totally off the mark with your moral theology in the STD-infected husband hypothetical story. The morally correct response to the desire to perform coitus in that situation would be abstinence....
View ArticleBy: Phaerisee
As a christian, what Mitt Romney believes worries me. http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IGFAph3lWqw
View ArticleBy: Marc
That is absolutly not true My Wie and me just got Marryed and my wife can not have Children because of a desease she had as a child. We asked on this subjekt and the priest said as long as we are...
View ArticleBy: Marc
I dont know were you guys have this information from, my Wife and me have known before our Wedding that we can not have children as my wife had a desiese as a chid. Our Catholic Priest told us as long...
View ArticleBy: Nicholas Escalona
You misunderstand me. Impotence is different from infertility/sterility. The former is an impediment, but the latter is not.
View ArticleBy: Sarah Burkey
Marc, it sounds like perhaps English is your second language and maybe you have misunderstood the word used here. No one is claiming that couples who cannot have children cannot marry. It is couples...
View ArticleBy: derp
This is not true. A woman taking hormone therapy such as the contraceptive pill for a genuine medical reason need not abstain from sex with her husband.
View ArticleBy: Nicholas Escalona
This is doubtful. At the very least, abstinence should be required because of the abortifacient properties of the drug, no?
View ArticleBy: derp
See Humane Vitae: “the Church does not consider at all illicit the use of those therapeutic means necessary to cure bodily diseases, even if a foreseeable impediment to procreation should result there...
View ArticleBy: Nicholas Escalona
Okay, but a foreseeable impediment to the lives of unborn children (such as occurs with the pill) would certainly preclude therapeutic use of any drugs, including contraceptive ones.
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